10-01-2004, 08:29 PM #1
Anyone have any scientific eveidence as to why detection x for oral and injectable
Does anyone have any scientific reasoning as to why detection times for oral and injectable winstrol differ so considerably? If you were to drink injectable winstrol would that cut down the detection time to that of winstrol pills? I just can't figure it out. It makes no sense to me. The compounds should be exatcly the same, no? They both should be metabolized in the same way, I would think.
10-02-2004, 04:39 PM #2
Bump, I'm not quite sure what this means, and even if i'm using it correctly, but I see bump in threads not getting any responses.
10-02-2004, 11:44 PM #3
I dont know. Possibly due to an extra metabolism process of orally absorbed winstrol , there may be higher levels of metabolites. (drinking winny would be the same as pills then, its not the pills, its the oral route)
That is what comes to mind to me
I dont know of anthing to back it up though, Ive never seen anything other than what lewyllen says.
10-03-2004, 01:57 AM #4Originally Posted by Billy_Bathgate
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