06-20-2010, 09:17 PM #1
Dosing...always a problem with me!
Hey guys I looked around but couldn't find anything specific, I have 5 mg of ghrp-6 and 2000 mcg (2 mg right?) of MGF. How should I dilute these exactly? I was told to use 300 mcg of ghrp 6 a day, and 200 mcg of the MGF twice a week both shot IM. Opinions?
06-21-2010, 06:50 AM #2
06-21-2010, 02:41 PM #3
Wow thats exactly how i guessed it maybe i am not too terrible. Regardless, thank you for your post brother!
06-21-2010, 03:10 PM #4
06-23-2010, 12:55 AM #5New Member
- Join Date
- Jun 2010
I'm trying to get my head around this dosing. I think I am reading into it way to much.
If I have 1mg IGF-1 LR3 would I mix 10ml of Bacteriostatic water? This would give me 1000 mcg and would do a dose between 50mcg and 100mcg per day? Hence 1mg should give me 20-40 doses?
06-23-2010, 01:00 PM #6
grams, milligrams, micrograms, etc are all weight, not volume (the amount of space something takes up). weight changes depending upon the substance (lead vs cotton). liters, milliliters, CC's, etc describe volume, which is constant. 1 milliliter = 1 cubic centimeter ("CC").
1 gram (g) = 1000 milligrams (mg) = 1,000,000 micrograms (mcg)
There is no universal forumula for converting weight (g, mg, mcg, etc) into volume (L, mL, etc). A cubic centimeter of lead and a cubic centimeter of cotton both have the same volume (1 cc), but their weights are going to be significantly different.
If you have 1 mg of IGF LR3, you are still going to have 1 mg of IGF LR3 no matter how much fluid you mix it with. That 1 mg has just been evenly diluted throughout whatever volume of liquid you added.
weight (mcg) / volume (mL) = the concentration of whatever substance per mL.
Weight = W
Volume = V
Concentration = C
W / V = C
so if you have 1000 mcg and add 2 mL, you just do 1000 / 2 = 500. So you have 500 mcg of whatever per 1 mL of solution. On an insulin needle, each 10 hash mark is equal to 0.1 ml. So each mark is 1/10th of a mL. If you have 500 mcg per mL, then each hash mark = 50 mcg because 1/10th of 500 = 50.
To find out how much liquid you should add, you simply change the variables.
Remember our formula:
W / V = C
Weight = W
Volume = V
Concentration (mcg per mL) = C
We want to figure out the volume of liquid we should add to achieve a specific dose this time, so we'll leave that as our unknown.
The weight is still the same. W = 1000 mcg
The volume is our unknown. V = ?
And we know we want a concentration of 500 mcg per mL because that would allow for each hash mark to = 50 mcg (making it very easy to measure 50 or 100 mcg).
So 1000 mcg / V = 500
V = 2
So if you add 2 mL of solution to your 1000 mcg, you will have 500 mcg per mL, and each hash mark will be equal to 50 mcg.
If you wanted to be able to make even more accurate doses, say 25 mcg per hash mark, that would mean you'd want 250 mcg per mL.
1000 mcg / V = 250 mL
V = 4
So if you added 4 mL of solution to your 1000 mcg, you would have 250 mcg per mL or 25 mcg per hash mark.
Last edited by frawnz; 06-23-2010 at 01:04 PM.
06-23-2010, 01:10 PM #7
1000 mcg / 10 ml = C
This means for every mL of solution (a full 1 CC insulin syringe), you will have 100 mcg of IGF LR3.
To figure out how many doses you have, volume isn't even an issue, as once again, the amount of IGF LR3 you have isn't going to change by adding liquid.
1000 mcg (your total amount of product) divided by whatever dose you want (50-100) will give you the answer to how many doses you have.
1000 mcg / 50 mcg = 20 doses
1000 mcg / 100 mcg = 10 doses
So if you want to do between 50-100 mcg a day, you will have 10-20 days worth from a total supply of 1mg (1000 mcg).
06-23-2010, 09:55 PM #8New Member
- Join Date
- Jun 2010
Thanks for the lesson frawnz.
To more specifically help with my dosing I have 3 x 1mg vials of IGF-1 R3. All my research has shown that you should inject 50-100mcg per day. If 1mg/vial is mixed with 1ml of ba I would have 1000mcg. The syringe I have are 1ml. Injecting 100mcg would you would only got to the 2nd harsh mark on your syringe? This just doesn't seem correct. It seems like I would be dosing to low and would be very difficult to inject such a small amount.
The reason I question all this is because I had vials that were 100mcg each. This made it very easy. You add 1ml of ba and each vial is 1-2 doses. The vials I have now are 1mg = 1000mcg.
06-24-2010, 02:48 AM #9
If a 100 mcg vial is 1-2 doses, then a 1000 mcg vial would be 10-20 doses.
If you put 1 mL of water into your vial of 1000 mcg and your syringe is a 1ml syringe, that means the entire 1000 mcg would fit inside the syringe because it would all be contained within the 1 mL of water you added.
Since each hash mark is 0.1 mL (10% of the total), then that would be equal to 100 mcg (10% of 1000 mcg).
Your best bet is to add 4 mL of water to each vial. That would make each hash mark equal to 25 mcg and make it a lot easier to accurately measure your 50-100 mcg doses (to the 20 and 40 hash marks, respectively).
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