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If I'm suppose to do it Am/PM and I do arms how do I split 40mcg by 4 ? That would mean 10mcg in each bicep post work out in the Am and again PM. How is it possible to measure that on a slin pin when I'm already at the very first mark on the pin for 20mcg ? This sounds so confusing when you try and inject each body part and your suppose to do it am/pm.
I mean you just don't want to do one bicep with 20mcg after am work out and then the other pm....do you ?
Not from what I have read Bro. I do not believe the timing on tha PM is all that accurate. Do 20mcg in both arm's right after workout. This stuff has a half life of 10 to 12 hours. So I will only inject post w/o when the muscles are screamin. PeaceQuote:
Originally Posted by Ozzy
ok so 1 time ed at 40mcg is sufficent then , right ?
You see the am/pm is to keep the blood levels at a peak for 24 hours. However, there is not enough human research. Also, what if you take a pm shot and your body goes into hypo.(small chance) I will not take even a .001 chance on a pm shot. I think that when administered post w/o it is getting to the muscle worked and doing its job. Note...my theory is this: when we work out hard enough our body produces natural hgh which releases igf-1 in response to the hgh. So let tha natural part kick in over night. PeaceQuote:
Originally Posted by Ozzy
Ok , but when I said am work out it was an example. Because my w/o is in the pm , so I have to do pm shots.
From what I have read here and at other boards. Right before bed take in a protein drink with at least 50grms of carbs. I work out in tha morning and will probably run slin with the igf-1. So all I'm saying is to CYA cause everyone is different. This is why you will notice a high difference of opinion on so many different aas. Take for instance...I will never try tren...or as they call it fina. Why take a derivative of test when you can take tha real thing. Water retnetion??? Please!!!!Quote:
Originally Posted by Ozzy