Given that I think about this **** during my day, is it any wonder I'm heading to law school?
Anyway, I was just curious as to how you guys would view this hypothetical. NOTE: it *does* involve abortion, so please let's not let this degrade into an abortion debate....save it for another thread; hell, go create that thread if you're so inclined.
To get to the point, however, give me your thoughts on this: suppose a couple discovers that the female is pregnant and in a very early stage, i.e., but days along (further note...this has NOTHING to do with me and my recent situation, though it may have sparked the curiosity). Now, while I have no access any longer to lexis, westlaw, et al, I imagine that the woman's right to choose supercedes the male's "right" to say, "you're NOT having that baby"...in fact, i'm sure that comes up often and would wager that the courts and our moral system/foundations have tended to view it as 'the norm' for the woman to have that right to give birth without the father's approval or even with his vehement DISapproval.
However, imagine a hypothetical in which a couple is in the above situation and the female is opposed to having the child while the male very much so desires to have the child. In this situation, does the female still have the "right to choose" (i don't expect any of us have a concrete legal answer)? Should she have this right (this is the more important question here for lounge purposes)? In such an instance, do we ignore the father's "claim" to the forming child and say it's acceptable for a female to make this decision solely? Or do we recognize that the female is but the vehicle (biologically speaking, not culturally or sociologically, so don't start) for the birth and "ownership" (a crass term i know) is 50/50 and the male, should he be demonstrably able to care for said forming child, has the right to insist on the birth of his child? Food for thought.........