Obviously virgin muscle causes a great deal more PIP but is this with each cycle? If you do 2-3 cycles a year, by the time you get around to pinning again is that muscle considered virgin again?
I know virgin means never been used but with a 3-4 month gap is that enough time for your muscle to go back to it's original state......whatever that may be?
Pinning is effortless now and i was thinking about this today and if I would it would be effortless immediately next cycle or if the PIP would be back for the first few weeks.