okay everyone, i need someone with proof or some kind of studies done to clear up this controversy over anavar. first of all, read this anavar profile from the main home page. here is the link: http://anabolicreview.com/showdrugprof.php?id=18
(sorry, don't know how to make it a clickable link so just open a new window from the file menu and type the exact address in as shown). now that you have read it, you may already know what my questions are. one, is that it states that at even a high dosage this compound does not influence the body's own testosterone production. To make this clear: Oxandrolone does not suppress the body's own hormone pro-duction. The reason is that it does not have a negative feedback mechanism on the hypothalamohypophysial testicular axis, meaning that during the intake of Oxandrolone, unlike during the intake of most anabolic steroids, the testes signal the hypo-thalamus not to reduce or to stop the release of GnRH (gonadot-ropin releasing hormone) and LHRH Luteinizing hormon releas-ing hormone). This special feature of Oxandrolone can be explained by the fact that the substance is not converted into estrogen Oxandrolone (Anavar), when given to normal men in high doses does not reduce the seminal volume or count, nor can it be converted (aromatized) into estrogen. now with this stated, please tell me why so many still insist on taking clomid post cycle?? my second question is why do so many insist on having anti-e's on hand when on var even though this document also insists that at NO, that's right, NO dose of var will aromatize to estrogen?? for what? i don't see the point. unless this whole profile is garbage and holds no validity whatsoever, i really am confused. can someone who really knows the deal with anavar please inform me and all others interested? vets, mods, or anyone with legit and backed info. please respond. no offense to anyone, but i am not really looking for opinions here. just the hard cold facts. thanks.
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