Guys,
Just a question for my own understanding of the science of AAS: If a doctor prescribes TRT to a patient with low testosterone, and a healthy young male with high testosterone takes the same exact dose, are they going to end up with the same overall levels of testosterone? Or is the healthy male going to have higher levels, as he had higher levels to begin with? My understanding was that when exogenous testosterone is introduced, natural testosterone levels become irrelevant as they become shut down, and the body runs exclusively on the exogenous test. Is this correct?
Thanks!