
Originally Posted by
jwhit84
It's widely stated that TRT makes men infertile, but we know that's not always the case due to some unknowns and dr-gs like HCG. I know that some men never become infertile even without other dr-gs.
However, my question is this. Does a low FSH (such as 0.3 with a normal range of 1.5 - 12.4 mIU/ml) mean a man is infertile at the time? Or can only a sperm test show for sure?
Would one of those unaffected men still have normal range FSH, or are they just fertile despite a low one?