I've read many posts stating that exogenous testosterone results in a complete shutdown of natural production of testosterone. But that's not correct if one is also using HCG, right?
Here's a snippet from the main sticky on HCG:
"Purpose: Testosterone replacement therapy results in decreased serum gonadotropins and intratesticular testosterone, and impairs spermatogenesis, leading to azoospermia in 40% of patients. However, intratesticular testosterone can be maintained during testosterone replacement therapy with co-administration of low dose human chorionic gonadotropin, which may support continued spermatogenesis in patients on testosterone replacement therapy."