
Originally Posted by
Ntpadude
OK I think 4.0 is indicative of a prostate problem. If I had a PSA of 3.0 my doctor would take me off all steroids, fortunately my latest PSA came in at 0.3 and hopefully with me being 44 and on HRT now, it will never elevate due to the protective nature of testosterone. I think at age 40 I had a PSA of 0.9 so its declined in the last 4 years of testosterone therapy.
What I'd like to know is why in the heck is he getting Anadrol while he has elevated PSA's???? Anadrol is supposed to be steroid version of DHT (the stuff that enlarges prostates and causes some men's hair to fall out). Its also one of the 2 worst steroids for provoking roid rage. Why does he need drols? Seems like plain old testosterone would be much friendlier on his body and PSA.
If I am not mistake what PSA is is actually semenal fluid somehow finds its way in your blood. (in other words your cum a male should be shooting in sex is actually showing up in his blood). So I donno, I am only a patient and not a doctor but something seems wrong that hes doing drols with PSA's like that.