We know what the androgen receptor does, as it is pretty self explanatory, and we know where it is, the X chromosome..but is there only one version of this receptor throughout the entire population? I understand that if there were multiple versions of the AR, there would also exist multiple versions of testosterone. Not crazy different, maybe just differing by a few hydrogens or carbons. Before anyone completely dismisses this, consider the fact that the AR was a part of evolution. Nothing is exactly fixed in evolution, and who is to say that different versions of the AR didn't develop throughout different populations? Of course this would mean that the coding for testosterone would have to match up with what the AR will accept. This would have crazy reprecussions for TRT though, because if there were some rare ARs out there they would lack the ability to utilize any of the synthetic testosterone they were using because its not what the AR wants, YET tests come back showing high T levels so it must just be you. Idk..
THE ONLY REASON I'm even thinking like this involves my TRT experience. At a fairly young age, 18, I started up androgel as a result of secondary hypogonadism that didn't resolve itself. I gained 40 pounds on the androgel, and felt amazing. Now I could just assume that the androgel was responsible for all the benefits I received, but I was also using HCG, which jump started my natty production a bit. Lets go ahead and say that IF my body did have some weird allele that resulted in a different AR, it would not respond to the androgel, but WOULD, however, respond to the HCG because its the testosterone my body makes to match the AR
This wouldn't be a big deal at all if something didn't stop working. About a year into treatment, I noticed I was losing muscle and tone. I felt crappier too, and libido dropped. Yeah, gels stop working, but my T levels were still good. Like..900 plus. E2 was in check, so then you start to wonder..what could account for this? WELL HCG has the ability to desensitize the leydig cells from what I understand, and with my prolonged HCG use, this may have happened.
SO we've got good looking T levels, but me feeling like I'm still hypogonadal. I've been on test cyp now for a year now, and still feeling the same way, like its not even working. I mean..yes this is ****ing crazy, but couldn't such a variation of the AR exist? I mean, if there were, there would be no problem for the male to reproduce and pass down the gene, assuming he never needed TRT. HIS T works for him. Also, its inherited from the X, so it comes from the mother anyway. I mean, I haven't ever seen any literature on this..but maybe they have it a little wrong?
I have done some experimentation with clomid and nolva prior to TRT. I achieved total T levels around 800, and good Free T as well. NOW, in a perfect world, the machines used to measure and analyze these levels would look for C19H28O2 EXACTLY, but we live in a imperfect world, and maybe the machine sees C23H28O2 and calls it testosterone..Therefore, it would seem that the testosterone I'm producing is perfectly normal, when in reality, its different, but the machine has been programmed to look for TESOSTERONE and not whatever it is I'm producing..
I don't know guys..I think I'm ****ing crazy but can anyone please disprove me so I can stop mind ****ing myself with it? Someone who's got a good grasp on genetics and why this couldn't be?
Or someone who understands the accuracy of testing for hormones?
THanks guys