Thread: 1-Test sublingually vs. M1T
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08-02-2004, 10:14 PM #1
1-Test sublingually vs. M1T
I am making sublingual 1-Testosterone at 25mg/ml. My theory is it is going to be as if not more potent than M1T at the same dosage.
Sublingual absorbtion is 95% effective and the reason 1-Test is methylated for the same reasons all other oral steroids are methylated, to survive the gut/liver. So a sublingual dose that never passes through the liver on the first pass should be as effective as M1T.
EDIT: Forgot to add, it then wont be liver toxic.
I am also running it with sublingual test suspension and sublingual boldenone (EQ) suspension.
Anyone concur or disagree with my theory?Last edited by Lozgod; 08-02-2004 at 10:25 PM.
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08-02-2004, 10:25 PM #2
Another part of methylating is to ad another reaction. I don't know about M1T, but steroids are methylated with an androgen so that it ads an androgenic reaction when the liver breaks it down.
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08-02-2004, 10:48 PM #3
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Adding a methyl group to a compound changes the compounds chemical characteristics and chemical behavior...
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08-02-2004, 10:57 PM #4
methylation decreases androgenic profile and increases anabolic profile
did you convert the boldenone from 1,4 andro into suspension?
what about the test? 4ad or real test
i doubt it will be entirely absorbed unless you keep it there for 20 mins
plus it would not keep blood levels stable enough id do it around 6 times a day and youll see awesome results
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08-02-2004, 10:58 PM #5
Not just adding a methyl group, adding an androgenic methyl group. Most people don't realize that you can methylate something with an non-androgen and you won't end up with the androgenic effect.
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08-02-2004, 10:59 PM #6
Originally Posted by Bryan2
http://forums.steroid.com/showthread.php?t=114451
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08-02-2004, 11:05 PM #7
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Originally Posted by Bryan2
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08-03-2004, 04:03 AM #8
most adds have them there and from talking with various manufactorors i had a convo with sledge from designer supplements about this one time.
Im not sure if it affects all substances but it does with m1t over regular 1 test
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08-03-2004, 09:17 AM #9
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Well considering that manufacturers are going to tell you that it makes it less androgenic and more anabolic , thus giving you more reason to buy their product, i wouldn't trust everything i hear from a manufacturer. Listen to what the people that make 6-oxo claim about their product. Im looking for some scientific evidence of this.
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08-03-2004, 05:03 PM #10
ill do some diggin around
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08-03-2004, 09:28 PM #11
Originally Posted by DBarcelo
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08-03-2004, 09:42 PM #12
OK without the methylated situation, directly to the blood (injection, sublingual, etc.), 20 mg of 1-Test (non M1T) would still be be an effective dose in theory correct?
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08-03-2004, 10:11 PM #13
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Yep, and you should be able to get up to a higher dosage than m1t because of the lack of hepatoxicity of sublingual 1-test.
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08-03-2004, 10:58 PM #14
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95% is a high number,do I have to try it with my EQ base?
I *l-o-v-e* Boldenon,but I donīt like the ester on it.
It would be hard for me to feel a difference,cause Iīm running D-Bol,Test,Winny and Anadrol at the moment,but Iīll give it a try.
Do you use a penetrationenhancer for better absorbtion?
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08-03-2004, 11:00 PM #15
Originally Posted by NewBreed
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08-03-2004, 11:36 PM #16
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NewBreed
Originally Posted by NewBreed
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08-04-2004, 08:15 AM #17
Originally Posted by MMC78
The position is the same, it's just a matter of what chemical you're putting in that position. It's not the position that causes the androgenic effect. The position is what gets cougt up in the liver and gets broken down by the liver allowing the rest of the chemical structure to enter the blood. What happens as it's broken down by the liver depends on the chemical that is put in the 17th position. If it's a non-androgen, there will probably be no reaction with the exception of a light toxicity in the liver which is short lived. If the substance in the 17th position is an androgenic, then your body will experience the androgenic effects of the chemical as the body breaks it down.
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08-04-2004, 08:25 AM #18
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What constitutes an androgenic methyl group? A methyl group is just CH3, how can a methyl group be androgenic?
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08-04-2004, 01:26 PM #19
Originally Posted by DBarcelo
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08-04-2004, 01:30 PM #20
Originally Posted by nsa
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08-04-2004, 02:48 PM #21
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Originally Posted by MMC78
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08-04-2004, 03:35 PM #22
Originally Posted by nsa
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08-04-2004, 05:03 PM #23
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Yeah, so it can't be substituted for a hydrogen in a compound, CH3 can however be substitutedsince it is not saturated.
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08-04-2004, 05:50 PM #24
Originally Posted by nsa
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08-04-2004, 09:13 PM #25
Originally Posted by nsa
There are a few chemicals that are used to be placed in that particular space in order for it to pass the liver and I don't remember which ones they are off the top of my head, but they are not all androgenic . I'll look it up when I get a chance.
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08-04-2004, 09:14 PM #26
Originally Posted by MMC78
No, it's not quite that simple. As I answered the other person. I don't remember it off the top of my head. I'll look it up when I get a chance and I'll try to find this post again.
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08-04-2004, 09:39 PM #27
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Originally Posted by Lozgod
@ Lozgod I tied the EQ-base under my tongue right after I postet and Iīve gotten hungry as hell roughly an hour after.....youīre my sub-hero.
@nsa:i will use the 17aa not all together all the time;I just checked some of them how they work and throw the ones I donīt need out.
There is no 17 methylation which is andogenic there are ways to alter the molecule so that it becomes more androgenic ,I donīt know it exactly but itīs not necesserally the 17th,but more on the 2nd ring structure(but I maybe wrong).
Anyway they were putting on fluor,chlor which are a kind of more toxic than just an alkyl and some have an alkyl and a halogen-atom in their structure.
Tbc....Last edited by NewBreed; 08-04-2004 at 10:38 PM.
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08-04-2004, 09:43 PM #28
Originally Posted by DBarcelo
http://www.muscletalk.co.uk/article-...chemistry2.asp
All of the oral's have a methyl group (CH3) added to the 17th position. Notice the different behaviors of dianabol and boldenone which only differ by a methy group and an esther.
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08-04-2004, 10:10 PM #29
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Actually their is more of a difference between Dbol and EQ. See that R on the boldenone , that is where the undecylenate ester is attached, which changes the chemical behavior of the compound. To sum this up, neither Dbol nor EQ act the same way that boldenone would act alone without either of these functional groups attached to it...
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08-04-2004, 10:31 PM #30
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Boldenone is simply methylated D-bol and the ester is cleaved to the o-atom as a substitution fortthe h-atomat the 17C-atom(therefor you need to inject it,īcause thereīs no methyl-group on the 17C).
As soon as the hormone with the ester is in the blood-stream itīs enzymatically reduced and the ester is cut off,so that it becomes the active hormone which is not functioning while the estes is on it.
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08-04-2004, 10:32 PM #31
So would boldenone base effect one differently than boldenone und.?
Originally Posted by NewBreed
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08-04-2004, 10:53 PM #32
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No.Itīs the same as with Testo and any other esterfied Hormone.Testo ist Testo and it dosnīt matter with what ester.It does the same thing,only the ester determines when,how much and how long.
Methyl-testo is methyl testo.the methylation stays and renders the testosterone oral active and into a different hormone than testosterone without methylation,like D-Bol vs. Boldenone .
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08-04-2004, 10:55 PM #33
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08-04-2004, 11:01 PM #34
Originally Posted by nsa
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08-04-2004, 11:02 PM #35
Originally Posted by Lozgod
http://www.muscletalk.co.uk/article-...chemistry2.asp
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08-05-2004, 01:25 AM #36
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Does it really say Dianabol doesnīt aromatize?
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08-05-2004, 08:06 AM #37
Originally Posted by MMC78
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08-05-2004, 09:00 AM #38
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08-05-2004, 09:24 AM #39
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08-05-2004, 01:24 PM #40
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Yeah, i was just trying to clear that up...
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