Hi All,
I'm 24, and I've been on TRT since March after symptoms of poor sexual function were matched with low T, LH, and FSH. After much research, I came to the conclusion that this drop was a result of the prolonged use of melatonin as a sleep aid, although the data is mixed on what affect this has on the sexual function of men.
I started off at
T = 304 ng/dl
FSH = 2.0 MIU/mL
LH = 1.8 MIU/mL
I started off with shots, which got my T up to the 500s, and then switched to a PLO based cream at 10 g per mL. My numbers in June were as follows:
T: 432
FSH: 1
LH: 1.4
Although my T wasn't all that I, normal sexual function returned.
I then switched to a PLO cream from a different pharmacy. For about 2-3 weeks I moved my dosage up from 1 mL to 1.5 mL as I began noticing a drop in sexual function again. After my libido shot through the roof (the point where it was becoming a disturbance), I dropped back down to 1 mL.
After roughly two weeks of being back on a dose of 1 mL, I got my blood drawn and these were my results:
T: 932
Free T: 45 ng/dl (5-21)
FSH: 1.1
LH: 1.8
My endocrinologist said this was a good sign that my pituitary had recovered and could begin tappering off the T.
Surprised by the high T, I got retested 4 days after the results of 932. My T was 666. I didn't get anything else tested, and I took the test at roughly the same time I took the previous test (12 hours after application of the creme).
My question is this:
Could being on 1.5 mL instead of 1 mL for 3 weeks account for the large rise in T, despite being back on a dose of 1 mL for about two weeks prior to the blood test. I'm having trouble understanding how my T could drop 300 ng/dl in 4 days despite a consistent dosage.