As for this, I will get back to you, one handed typing is slow, I recall this being brought up in a prior discussion, I need to find notes. I do remember there being a problem with the accuracy of this verse, something about how it doesn't appear in early manuscripts. The entire verse seems odd...
"Why would the equation of this divine Savior with the recent Jesus of Nazareth not be a necessary and natural part of at least some of the faith declarations or even simple arguments and discussions we find in all the first century epistles? It is notably missing in 1 Corinthians 1:18f, where Paul is defending God's wisdom and the apparent folly of Christian doctrine, yet he feels no necessity to include a defence of the folly that a human being has been elevated to divinity."