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Thread: time till TEST aromatizes
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03-05-2003, 06:12 PM #1
time till TEST aromatizes
I am curious if there is a 'rule of thumb' on the time it takes testosterone to aromatize?
Lets say I start injecting test, how long will it take this influx to begin the process of aromatizing?
Also, is there any difference post cycle, say after finishing off with winny only for 6 weeks, and then jump starting your nuts with HCG ... how long till the new influx of test begin to aromatize?
Solrock
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03-05-2003, 06:23 PM #2New Member
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03-05-2003, 07:11 PM #3
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03-05-2003, 11:50 PM #4
As soon as the test is free from its ester and in the blood stream it begins metabolizing to its different metabolites. The different enzymes that metabolize test are present regardless. So you could consider it an individual and quantitative matter. Some people naturally have more aromatase enzyme present than others (consider genetics and the fact that aromatase enzyme is found in high concentrations in fat tissue, and other tissue as well). This is what accounts for the difference in effect seen by people. So you would then need to look at the rate of the enzymatic reaction. You could probably assume the rate of catalysis rises in a linear fashion as substrate (test) concentration increases, then it would level off and approach a maximum at higher concentrations (this is generalized enzyme action). So at low concentrations, the rate of the reaction should be directly proportional to the concentraiton of the substrate for the aromatase enzyme. so it is basically an instantaneous effect. I don't know exactly the time required for this reaction to take place, but I am sure it happens rather quickly. You then have to consider enzyme up/down regulation as well. So once the test molecule is free in the blood, it is reacting.
Here is good general read:
http://www.indstate.edu/thcme/mwking...-hormones.html
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03-06-2003, 12:02 AM #5
You are correct that the reaction begins happening almost immediately but the only thing that really matters is when (if at all) does a person get the negative sides associated with conversion. A small amount of conversion is good for growth. That is to individualized to predict and something only experience will be able to tell you.
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03-06-2003, 10:12 AM #6Originally posted by Rickson
You are correct that the reaction begins happening almost immediately but the only thing that really matters is when (if at all) does a person get the negative sides associated with conversion. A small amount of conversion is good for growth. That is to individualized to predict and something only experience will be able to tell you.
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03-06-2003, 07:54 PM #7
Thank you Ichabodcrane and Rickson... great link Ichabodcrane.
Okay... now what would taking Aromasin do to this equation... especially if the Aromasin dosage were high? If one were to arrest aromatization, would the LACK OF ESTROGEN cause a problem?
I realize these questions are very broad and would likely entail a whole text book to answer... I am just trying to get a conceptual framework to view all of this. I appreciate all of your responses.
Thanks
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03-06-2003, 08:17 PM #8
What is it you are trying to accomplish exactly? Aromasin is a very powerful anti-e and at high dosages my guess is you would inhibit it completely. Estrogen does have its place in the male body so it could have long term effects if you were to use it for a significant amount of time. Short term use would be fine although some say mass is slightly sacrificed without estrogen in the equation.
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03-06-2003, 08:24 PM #9Originally posted by Rickson
What is it you are trying to accomplish exactly?
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