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11-24-2012, 01:02 PM #1
Question about Test to Estro Conversion
So the body converts excess testosterone to estrogen. After what serum/free testosterone level does the body begin converting test to estro? And what percentage of the injected test is converted to estro? I'd assume that from only 500mg/week a smaller amount will be converted compared to someone who is taking 1-2 grams a week.
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11-24-2012, 01:54 PM #2
You're thinking of the aromitization process is a little off. The amount of test that aromitizes is dependent more so on the amount of aromatase enzyme present in the body than the amount of testosterone injected.
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11-24-2012, 01:58 PM #3
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11-24-2012, 02:16 PM #4
Oh so it's dependent on the amount of aromatase enzyme. I see. Any ideas on what influences the amount of a. enzyme in an individual? Or does it just differ from person to person?
Is that what armidex does by any chance? Or does adex simply disallow the formation of estrogen?
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11-24-2012, 02:36 PM #5
Well that was a stupid question... Now that I read back what I said. Aromatization and the formation of estrogen is one and the same. So basically if one takes arimidex , he is inhibiting aromatase correct?
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11-24-2012, 02:37 PM #6
And nolvadex works not to inhibit aromatase but simply disallows estrogen to bind to androgen receptors? Do I have that right?
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11-24-2012, 02:46 PM #7
Exactly, but not androgen receptors, estrogen receptors.
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So far so good, they seem to be doing what they’re supposed to.
Expired dbol (blue hearts)