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05-24-2011, 10:19 PM #1
Bioavailable testosterone vs free testosterone
My endo told me that he doesnt like using free test and only uses bioavailable. So can anyone tell me the difference?
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05-25-2011, 08:34 AM #2
There is not total agreement on the threshold of testosterone value below which a man would be considered hypogonadal. (Currently there are no standards as to when to treat women.) Testosterone can be measured as "free" (that is, bioavailable and unbound) or more commonly, "total" (including the percentage which is chemically bound and unavailable). In the United States, male total testosterone levels below 300 ng/dL from a morning serum sample are generally considered low.[49] Identification of inadequate testosterone in an aging male by symptoms alone can be difficult.
ref: wikepedia
just from me reading that it SOUNDS like they are the same but not sure...
bump
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05-25-2011, 10:33 AM #3Knowledgeable Member
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They aren't the same. My labs had total, free, and bioavailable lab values. Free and bioavailable were different values and ranges.
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05-25-2011, 10:40 AM #4Associate Member
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free is what is totally freed up from the total t, bioavailable is also freed up from total t, but lightly bound to albumin
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05-25-2011, 05:48 PM #5
Yeh...didnt think same but that sounded as so...lol
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05-25-2011, 06:50 PM #6
If they are so similar, I wonder why an endo would have such a strong preference for the bioavailable?
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05-27-2011, 12:42 PM #7
Bump
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05-27-2011, 03:38 PM #8
what are you going to do with the info you discover..possibly change the endo's mind cuz thats what YOUR endo uses
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05-27-2011, 06:10 PM #9
Just trying my best to understand where this buying is coming from. I've got two more sets of tests to do and I'm not sure if i should try and purposely bring the numbers down or just get some true results. I'm sure these numbers will influence my uro one way or another.
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