Clenbuterol/albuterol offset?

[hfurt]

OK so as in my experience clen works better than albuterol (and yes I am 100% aware of the risks of clen), but albuterol is safer and you can stay on longer (ie you dont have to do 2 on 2 off).

Sooo the question is - if you were to do 2 weeks on clen, can you use albuterol on the 2 weeks off, then, stop the albuterol and go back to the clen?

Sorry my mind goes to weird places sometimes.

Thanks

[2jz_calgary]

Almost same compound....

[magic32]

Firstly, some of your foundational premises are skewed, thus nothing else can be clear. So let's clean them up:

OK so as in my experience clen works better than albuterol (and yes I am 100% aware of the risks of clen),
This is a matter of opinion, maybe it works better for you, which is completely understandable because everyone is different. But chemically and actionably they are nearly identical, with Albuterol being slightly faster-acting.

but albuterol is safer and you can stay on longer
Objectively speaking, neither is safer. They work in the same way (actions), at the same level (on the beta2-receptor), with 'essentially' the same effects/results.

(ie you dont have to do 2 on 2 off).
Objectively speaking, you don't 'HAVE' to come off Clen after two weeks to maintain benefit. As a medical drug it is designed for longer use - This is not only expressed within the profile, but is also part of this drug's pharmacological profile. Granted our excessive (greater than the recommended dosage) use for bb'er purposes changes the playing field, however, it can be effectively run for 4-6 weeks, and presumably (according to many users) longer with certain caveats (antihistamine usage). Nevertheless, the 2 wks on 2 wks off protocol is not the only viable regimen, nor is it optimal.

Sooo the question is - if you were to do 2 weeks on clen, can you use albuterol on the 2 weeks off, then, stop the albuterol and go back to the clen?
Absolutely not! For the reasons first posited above namely, they are virtually identical and are absorbed at the very same beta2 level. Thus substituting one for the other is the same as continuing the first, e.g. (and this is an admittedly crude hypothetical example for clarity sake only) if your tests came back lactose intolerant, and your doctor said you can drink a 'maximum' of one glass of 2% milk per day, you then cannot drink subsequent daily glasses of a different percentages (skim, 1%, or whole) as they are 'essentially' the same.

Sorry my mind goes to weird places sometimes.
Don't be sorry, your question was valid, and this is how we learn.


Thanks

[hfurt]

Firstly, some of your foundational premises are skewed, thus nothing else can be clear. So let's clean them up:

Great info, thank you